Comparing the jump between 5'6"-5'8", 5'8"-5'10" and 5'10"-6'

Edit Post

https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/series/sr_03/sr03_039.pdf

https://i.imgur.com/UCIM0aE.png

Official stats from the CDC. Since it's entirely plausible that someone in the US could live in an area that is 90%+ white, I will be calculating with nums from the 20-39 non-hispanic white stats.

mean: 70.1 inches (5'10.1")
standard deviation: stdError*sqrt(n) = 0.11*sqrt(715) = 2.94

So we can say that height is normally distributed with a mean of 70 inches and a standard deviation of 3 inches.

http://www.muelaner.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/07/Standard_deviation_diagram.png

On this graph, σ(sigma) means standard deviation. Notice 68.2% of people will fall within one standard deviation, so that is 5'10+-3, 6'1 and 5'7.

Now, we want to see which jump has bigger area on this graph (5'6" to 5'8", 5'8" to 5'10", or 5'10" to 6') because that would mean that you would have the biggest "jump" and would become "taller" than more people in the population.

We can do this with normcdf(lower bound, upper bound, 70, 3).

For 5'6 to 5'8 the area is: 16.1%
For 5'8 to 5'10 the area is: 24.75%
For 5'10 to 6' the area is: 24.75%

Bonus intervals:
5'3 to 5'6: 8.1%
5'10 to 6'2: 40.87%
5'6 to 5'10: 40.87%

(notice the biggest jumps are the ones that are closer to the mean, this makes sense, there are a LOT of people close to the mean in the 5'8-6ft range).

What these percentages mean is, relative to each height, this is the percentage of more people you will be taller than after gaining height. So if you went from 5'6 to 5'8 you would now be taller than 16.1% of the males you would have encountered previously.

So to answer the question in the OP: Relatively 5'8 to 5'10 and 5'10 to 6' are equivalent jumps if we look at this from a PURELY statistical point of view.

I would say MORE important than area "jumps" is simply lying within about one single standard deviation of height, which would be the 5'7-6'1 line. Being within one standard deviation of a norm usually means you have become, incredibly average and usual, there is absolutely nothing uncanny or exceptional about a standard deviation. So for example, take someone who is 5'4 (2 standard deviations away) and becomes 5'8 (a little less than one standard deviation), even though that's only a 23% increase relative to the population, in reality he just went from being the shortest guy in a room of 50 males, to only being the shortest guy in a group of 4 males. That's a huge change in perception. Also, something similar happens to people going from 5'6 to 5'10, 5'6 to 5'10 is just slightly over a standard deviation away and 5'10 ls the mean. That means you go from being the shortest person in a group of 10 males to on average, being taller than half of males. That's another HUGE change in perception.

On a side note, from looking at the CDC stats, it's pretty interesting to note that their 30-39 sample population was 1/3 of an inch taller than their 20-39. The sample sizes were kind of small though (<1000), so it could just be error (or maybe, heights are actually starting to decline slightly in response to poor sleep/diets/hormones?). That may not sound like a lot, but in statistics a difference in even 1/3 of an inch on the mean can lead to significant effects IRL, heck, even one inch. Note that Germany is regarded as having an average male height of ~5'11 and America an average male height of ~5'9, and Germans are perceived to be "giants" because of this 2 inch difference. Something else I found interesting was that the 20-39 asians were 8/10ths of an inch taller than the 40-59 asians. Probably representing immigrants vs first generation asians (Could be diets and better health, or could just be immigration from different regions, could even be both).

Edit Post

Quote from: CaptainAmerica on November 04, 2018, 03:17:27 AMhttps://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/series/sr_03/sr03_039.pdf

https://i.imgur.com/UCIM0aE.png

Official stats from the CDC. Since it's entirely plausible that someone in the US could live in an area that is 90%+ white, I will be calculating with nums from the 20-39 non-hispanic white stats.

mean: 70.1 inches (5'10.1")
standard deviation: stdError*sqrt(n) = 0.11*sqrt(715) = 2.94

So we can say that height is normally distributed with a mean of 70 inches and a standard deviation of 3 inches.

http://www.muelaner.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/07/Standard_deviation_diagram.png

On this graph, σ(sigma) means standard deviation. Notice 68.2% of people will fall within one standard deviation, so that is 5'10+-3, 6'1 and 5'7.

Now, we want to see which jump has bigger area on this graph (5'6" to 5'8", 5'8" to 5'10", or 5'10" to 6') because that would mean that you would have the biggest "jump" and would become "taller" than more people in the population.

We can do this with normcdf(lower bound, upper bound, 70, 3).

For 5'6 to 5'8 the area is: 16.1%
For 5'8 to 5'10 the area is: 24.75%
For 5'10 to 6' the area is: 24.75%

Bonus intervals:
5'3 to 5'6: 8.1%
5'10 to 6'2: 40.87%
5'6 to 5'10: 40.87%

(notice the biggest jumps are the ones that are closer to the mean, this makes sense, there are a LOT of people close to the mean in the 5'8-6ft range).

What these percentages mean is, relative to each height, this is the percentage of more people you will be taller than after gaining height. So if you went from 5'6 to 5'8 you would now be taller than 16.1% of the males you would have encountered previously.

So to answer the question in the OP: Relatively 5'8 to 5'10 and 5'10 to 6' are equivalent jumps if we look at this from a PURELY statistical point of view.

I would say MORE important than area "jumps" is simply lying within about one single standard deviation of height, which would be the 5'7-6'1 line. Being within one standard deviation of a norm usually means you have become, incredibly average and usual, there is absolutely nothing uncanny or exceptional about a standard deviation. So for example, take someone who is 5'4 (2 standard deviations away) and becomes 5'8 (a little less than one standard deviation), even though that's only a 23% increase relative to the population, in reality he just went from being the shortest guy in a room of 50 males, to only being the shortest guy in a group of 4 males. That's a huge change in perception. Also, something similar happens to people going from 5'6 to 5'10, 5'6 to 5'10 is just slightly over a standard deviation away and 5'10 ls the mean. That means you go from being the shortest person in a group of 10 males to on average, being taller than half of males. That's another HUGE change in perception.

On a side note, from looking at the CDC stats, it's pretty interesting to note that their 30-39 sample population was 1/3 of an inch taller than their 20-39. The sample sizes were kind of small though (<1000), so it could just be error (or maybe, heights are actually starting to decline slightly in response to poor sleep/diets/hormones?). That may not sound like a lot, but in statistics a difference in even 1/3 of an inch on the mean can lead to significant effects IRL, heck, even one inch. Note that Germany is regarded as having an average male height of ~5'11 and America an average male height of ~5'9, and Germans are perceived to be "giants" because of this 2 inch difference. Something else I found interesting was that the 20-39 asians were 8/10ths of an inch taller than the 40-59 asians. Probably representing immigrants vs first generation asians (Could be diets and better health, or could just be immigration from different regions, could even be both).

Very interesting perspective. I agree that it's more about lying within one single standard deviation.

I just would like to add the for Asians (like you and me), I believe we'll be taller than more Asian men with 5'6"-5'8" jump than 5'8"-5'10". This is because there are more Asian men in that range.

Edit Post

Good post captain.

In short, the shorter you are the more you gain from LL.
Note that a man gaining 2-3 inches from LL is also improving his height relative to women at an even greater amount.

Edit Post

Quote from: LL4me on November 04, 2018, 12:08:57 PMGood post captain.

In short, the shorter you are the more you gain from LL.
Note that a man gaining 2-3 inches from LL is also improving his height relative to women at an even greater amount.

Not true. If you're 5' male. Another 2-3" doesn't get you anywhere near standard deviation.

Edit Post

Quote from: Bruce Wayne on November 04, 2018, 03:06:32 PMNot true. If you're 5' male. Another 2-3" doesn't get you anywhere near standard deviation.

at 5'0 nearly all women are tall than you. But at 5'3 u are an inch shorter than half of the girls/women. That's the gain I am referring to.

Men do't do LL so they can be taller than other men. if u are too off the male average then LL will atleast make u as tall as women and that's worth some thing.

Edit Post

Quote from: LL4me on November 04, 2018, 03:55:02 PMat 5'0 nearly all women are tall than you. But at 5'3 u are an inch shorter than half of the girls/women. That's the gain I am referring to.

Men do't do LL so they can be taller than other men. if u are too off the male average then LL will atleast make u as tall as women and that's worth some thing.

Yeah that's a wrong perception.

Edit Post

Quote from: Bruce Wayne on November 04, 2018, 11:30:11 AMVery interesting perspective. I agree that it's more about lying within one single standard deviation.

I just would like to add the for Asians (like you and me), I believe we'll be taller than more Asian men with 5'6"-5'8" jump than 5'8"-5'10". This is because there are more Asian men in that range.

Lol wat? I'm not Asian.

Quote from: LL4me on November 04, 2018, 12:08:57 PMGood post captain.

In short, the shorter you are the more you gain from LL.
Note that a man gaining 2-3 inches from LL is also improving his height relative to women at an even greater amount.

Yeah this is another analysis I plan on making eventually... Showing the % of woman you'd now be taller than after LL... The areas would be substantially larger, considering the fact that the mean for women is at 5'5 and their 90th percentile bound is only 5'8. Meaning you could go from being shorter than 1/2 of women to being taller than 90%+ of them if you're under 5'5. 

I also plan on doing a statistical analysis of patient satisfaction and LL outcomes, taking into account pre and post heights.

https://www.reachyourheight.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/12/2016-Herzenberg-patient-satisfaction-JSOA.pdf

I think I'll make a separate thread for this